Economics Mcq

Business Economics Multiple Choice Questions

1. Who is called as father of Economics?
A. Adam smith
B. Robinson
C. Marshall
D. George Bernard
ANSWER: A
2. Economics is the science of wealth who gave this definition?
A. J.K.Mehta
B. Marshall
C. Adam Smith
D. Robbins
ANSWER: C
3. Which of the following is related with controlling economic problems ?
A. What to produce
B. How to produce
C. For whom to produce
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
4. The existence of both public and private sector enterprises constitutes
A. Capitalist economy
B. Mixed economy
C. Socialist economy
D. None of the Above
ANSWER: B
5. 12. Peoples wants are ----------------
A. More
B. Limited
C. Unlimited
D. Few
ANSWER: C
6. Who has given scarcity definition of economics?
A. Adam smith
B. Marshall
C. Robbins
D. Robertson
ANSWER: C
7. Micro economic theory is also known as -----------------.
A. Business Theory
B. Price Theory
C. Individual Theory.
D. Cost theory
ANSWER: B
8. Profit Maximisation goal is suitable for ------------ and ------------ markets .
A. Monopolistic and Oligopoly
B. Monopolistic and Duopoly
C. Monopsony and Duopsony
D. Perfect competition and monopoly
ANSWER: D
9. In economics the central problem is ----------------
A. money.
B. production.
C. consumption.
D. scarcity.
ANSWER: D
10. Utility is measured by ______________.
A. wealth
B. price
C. value or worth .
D. income.
ANSWER: C
11. The extra utility from consuming one more unit of a commodity is called -----------------
A. Mariginal utility
B. Additional utility
C. Surplus utility
D. Bonus utility
ANSWER: A
12. If marginal utility is zero ----------------
A. Total utility is zero
B. An additional unit of consumption will decrease total utility
C. An additional unit of consumption will increase total utility
D. Total utility is maximum.
ANSWER: D
13. When the total utility curve reaches its maximum level, marginal utility is-----------------------
A. Zero
B. Positive
C. Rising
D. Negative
ANSWER: A
14. In case of Utility theory as income increases, marginal utility of money ---------
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. constant
D. none of these
ANSWER: A
15. Who has given the concept of consumer surplus
A. Marshall
B. Robbins
C. Pigou
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
16. Utility means _______________.
A. Power to satisfy a want.
B. Usefulness.
C. Willingness of a person.
D. Harmfulness.
ANSWER: B
17. At point of satiety, marginal utility is _________________.
A. Zero.
B. Positive.
C. Maximum.
D. Negative
ANSWER: A
18. Which of the following is the second law of Gossen ?
A. Law of equi-marginal utility
B. Law of equi-product.
C. Theory of indifference curve.
D. Law of diminishing marginal utility
ANSWER: A
19. Total utility of a commodity is measured by which price of that commodity ?
A. Value in use.
B. Value in exchange
C. Both of above.
D. Value of money
ANSWER: A
20. According to Marshall, the basis of consumer surplus is ______________.
A. Law of diminishing marginal utility
B. Law of equi-marginal utility
C. Law of proportions
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
21. Which of the following is an economic activity?
A. Teaching of a teacher in the school.
B. To teach son at home.
C. To serve her child by mother.
D. To play football by a student.
ANSWER: A
22. Sales Maximisation is suitable for ------------ market
A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Monopoly
D. Monopsony
ANSWER: A
23. Demand is a function of -----------
A. Income.
B. Advertisement
C. Consumers
D. Price.
ANSWER: D
24. Which will cause a change in the demand for commodity X?
A. A Change In Tastes.
B. A Change In Income.
C. A Change In The Price of X .
D. A Change In Price Of Complementary Product
ANSWER: C
25. A market demand can be derived by adding all the individual demand curves ________________.
A. vertically.
B. horizontally.
C. in parallel.
D. by any of the above, as long as it is consistent.
ANSWER: C
26. A market demand Schedule for a product indicates that ______________.
A. as the product's price falls, consumers buy less of the good
B. there is a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded
C. as a product's price rises, consumers buy less of other goods.
D. there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.
ANSWER: D
27. When one speaks of "demand" in a particular market, this refers to __________.
A. the quantity demanded at a given price
B. only one price-quantity combination on the demand schedule
C. only one point on the entire demand curve.
D. the whole demand curve
ANSWER: D
28. Other things being equal, the law of demand implies that as ______________.
A. the demand for increases, the price will decrease
B. income increases, the quantity demanded will increase
C. the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease
D. the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase
ANSWER: C
29. For inferior commodities, income effect is ______________.
A. Zero.
B. Negative
C. Infinite.
D. Positive.
ANSWER: B
30. Which is not a determinant of demand?
A. Income.
B. The Cost of Inputs In Production .
C. The Prices of Related Goods
D. Future Price Expectations
ANSWER: B
31. The price elasticity of demand is the ___________________.
A. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.
B. percentage change in price divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded
C. dollar change in quantity demanded divided by the dollar change in price.
D. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in quantity supplied
ANSWER: A
32. If two goods are close substitutes , ___________________.
A. an increase in the price of one will decrease the demand for the other.
B. an increase in the price of one will increase the demand for the other.
C. a decrease in the price of one will increase the demand for the other.
D. a decrease in the price of one will have no effect on the demand for the other.
ANSWER: B
33. People demand more of product X when the price of product Y decreases. This means X and Y are _______________.
A. complements.
B. substitutes.
C. not related.
D. both inexpensive.
ANSWER: C
34. Derived demand is directly determined by ____________.
A. utility
B. the profitability of using inputs to produce output .
C. the ability to satisfy consumer desires
D. personal consumption
ANSWER: B
35. When demand is elastic ________________.
A. a fall in price is more than offset by an increase in quantity demanded, so that total revenue rises.
B. the good is probably a necessity, so price has little effect on quantity demanded.
C. a rise in price will increase total revenue, even though less is sold
D. buyers are not much influenced by prices of competing precedes.
ANSWER: C
36. The demand for a good is highly inelastic if __________________.
A. the price elasticity of the good is close to zero.
B. the income elasticity of the good is close to one
C. if it is a necessity
D. both a and c.
ANSWER: D
37. A perfectly inelastic demand curve __________________.
A. is a vertical line parallel to Y-axis.
B. is a vertical line parallel to X-axis
C. indicates a good with no close substitutes.
D. a and c.
ANSWER: D
38. Demand curve is a _____________.
A. falling curve
B. rising curve.
C. downward sloping curve.
D. upward sloping curve
ANSWER: C
39. Which of the following is not a step in the forecasting process?
A. Determine The Use Of The Forecast.
B. Eliminate Any Assumptions.
C. Determine The Time Horizon.
D. Select A Forecasting Model(S).
ANSWER: B
40. Gradual, long-term movement in time-series data is called _____________.
A. seasonal variation
B. cycles.
C. trends.
D. exponential variation.
ANSWER: A
41. Which of the following is not present in a time series?
A. Seasonality
B. Operational Variations.
C. Trend.
D. Random Variations.
ANSWER: D
42. In Sample survey method -------- Technique is adopted.
A. Deliberate
B. Convenience
C. Quota
D. Random
ANSWER: D
43. In time series, which of the following cannot be predicted?
A. Large Increases In Demand.
B. Technological Trends.
C. Seasonal Fluctuations
D. Random Fluctuations.
ANSWER: C
44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of simple moving averages?
A. It Smoothes Random Variations In The Data.
B. It Has Minimal Data Storage Requirements.
C. It Weights Each Historical Value Equally.
D. It Smoothes Real Variations In The Data.
ANSWER: B
45. Car and petrol are ---------------goods.
A. Substitutes
B. Complementay
C. Producers
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B
46. Tea and coffee are --------------Goods
A. Substitutes
B. Complementay
C. Producers
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: A
47. In cross elasticity of demand, for unrelated goods the demand curve will be --------------------
A. Rectangular hyperbola
B. Vertical line
C. Horizontal line
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: B
48. The total outlay method expains the relationship between Price and---------------
A. Demand
B. Supply
C. Expenditure
D. Income
ANSWER: C
49. Which of the following is included in exceptions to the law of demand
A. Giffen Goods
B. Prestigious goods
C. Both of the above
D. NOne of the above
ANSWER: C
50. When a commodity with many uses is demanded then it is called
A. Direct demand
B. Joint demand
C. Composite demand
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
51. A fall in the price of a commodity leads to _______________.
A. a shift in demand.
B. a fall in demand.
C. a rise in the consumers real income
D. a fall in the consumers real income.
ANSWER: C
52. An increase in demand can result from ____________.
A. a decline in market price
B. an increase in income
C. a reduction in the price of a substitute
D. an increase in the price of complements
ANSWER: B
53. Giffen goods are goods ___________.
A. for which demand increases as price increases.
B. which have a high income elasticity of demand.
C. which have a low cross elasticity of demand.
D. which are in very short supply
ANSWER: A
54. Decrease in demand means ________________.
A. movement upward on a demand curve.
B. movement downward on the demand curve.
C. shift downward of a demand curve.
D. shift upward of a demand curve.
ANSWER: C
55. Elasticity of demand is _______________.
A. slope of the demand curve.
B. usually unity
C. usually zero
D. degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price.
ANSWER: D
56. How would you indicate relatively inelastic demand by using one of the following measures
_________________.
A. E = Zero.
B. E is less than 1.
C. E is greater than 1
D. E = 1.
ANSWER: B
57. A demand curve which is a horizontal straight line has an elasticity that is ------------
A. zero.
B. greater than zero but less than one.
C. one.
D. infinite.
ANSWER: D
58. Demand forecasting means _________________.
A. simply guessing about future demand
B. establishing relations between demand and its determinants
C. predicting level of demand at a future date.
D. all the above.
ANSWER: C
59. The demand for labor slopes down and to the right because of _______________.
A. the law of demand .
B. the iron law of wages .
C. the law of diminishing marginal returns
D. economies of scale
ANSWER: C
60. Normal goods experience an increase in consumption when _______________.
A. real income increase
B. real income falls
C. price rises.
D. tastes change.
ANSWER: D
61. The demand for a good is price inelastic if ___________________.
A. the price elasticity is one.
B. the price elasticity is less than one.
C. the price elasticity is greater than one.
D. zero
ANSWER: B
62. A demand curve with unitary elasticity at all points is __________________.
A. a straight line .
B. a parabola.
C. a hyperbola
D. convex to the origin.
ANSWER: C
63. Supply is a function of -----------
A. Income.
B. Advertisement
C. Consumers
D. Price.
ANSWER: D
64. The supply of a product does not depend on _____________.
A. labor costs .
B. the number of sellers in the market .
C. consumers tastes .
D. existing technology .
ANSWER: C
65. -------- Economies views on reducing the Production costs
A. Internal
B. Inventory
C. Pecuniary
D. External
ANSWER: D
66. Which factor of production is considered as fixed input?
A. Labour
B. Technology
C. Capital
D. Land
ANSWER: D
67. ----------- is the remuneration for organisation
A. Rent
B. Wages
C. Interest
D. Profit.
ANSWER: D
68. ------------- input factor is divided as skilled, semi skilled, unskilled
A. Land
B. Capital
C. Technology
D. Labour
ANSWER: D
69. ---------- is the remuneration for labour
A. Rent
B. Wages
C. Interest
D. Profit.
ANSWER: B
70. When the output increases in the same proportion as the increase in input it is --------------Returns.
A. Constant
B. Average
C. Decreasing
D. Increasing
ANSWER: A
71. Cobb- douglas production function mainly studies --------------
A. Capital and labour
B. Labour and Entreprenueur
C. Land and Labour
D. Land and capital
ANSWER: A
72. Marginal cost is defined as
A. Change in total cost due change in output
B. Total cost divided by output
C. change in output due to a one unit change in an input
D. Total product divided by the quantity of input
ANSWER: A
73. The cost with which the concept of marginal cost is closely related -------------
A. Variable cost
B. Fixed cost
C. Opportunity cost
D. Economic Cost
ANSWER: A
74. Opportunity Cost is also Known as ---------------
A. Outlay cost
B. Sunk Cost
C. Alternative Cost
D. Total Cost
ANSWER: C
75. The costs that depend on output in the short run are _____________.
A. total variable costs only.
B. both total variable costs and total costs.
C. total costs only
D. total fixed cost only.
ANSWER: A
76. In the short run, as economists use the phrase, is characterised by ______________________.
A. all inputs being variable
B. a period where the law of diminishing returns does not hold
C. c. at least one fixed factor of production and firms neither leaving nor entering the industry.
D. no variable inputs - that is, all of the factors of production are fixed.
ANSWER: C
77. The formula for average fixed costs is __________________.
A. TFC/Q.
B. Dq/DFC.
C. Q/TFC.
D. TVC/Q.
ANSWER: A
78. The formula for average variable cost (AVC) is __________________.
A. DQ/DTVC.
B. DTVC/DQ
C. TVC/Q
D. Q/TVC
ANSWER: C
79. Implicit costs are ________________.
A. equal to total fixed costs
B. comprised entirely of variable costs
C. payments for self-employed resources.
D. always greater in the short run than in the long run.
ANSWER: C
80. Which would be an implicit cost for a firm? The cost _________________.
A. of worker wages and salaries for the firm
B. b. paid for leasing a building for the firm
C. paid for production supplies for the firm
D. of wages foregone by the owner of the firm
ANSWER: D
81. If a firms revenues just cover all its opportunity costs, then ________________.
A. normal profit is zero
B. economic profit is zero
C. total revenues equal its explicit costs.
D. total revenues equal its implicit costs
ANSWER: A
82. When the total product curve is falling, the ______________________.
A. marginal product of labor is zero
B. marginal product of labor is negative
C. average product of labor is increasing
D. average product of labor must be negative.
ANSWER: B
83. Variable costs are __________________.
A. sunk costs
B. multiplied by fixed costs
C. costs that change with the level of production.
D. defined as the change in total cost resulting from the production of an additional unit of output.
ANSWER: C
84. Opportunity cost of a factor of production with specific use is ____________.
A. very high.
B. infinite
C. zero.
D. constant.
ANSWER: C
85. Money paid to unskilled labour is called ---------------
A. Wages
B. Salary
C. Royalty
D. None
ANSWER: A
86. Which of the following curve is not U-shaped?
A. AVC
B. AFC
C. AC
D. MC
ANSWER: B
87. Labour is a _________________.
A. gift
B. immovable factor.
C. bargaining factor.
D. passive factor.
ANSWER: C
88. Off all the factors of production given below, which one is perishable in nature ____________.
A. labour.
B. land.
C. capital.
D. entrepreneurship.
ANSWER: A
89. External economies of scale arise when ______________.
A. expansion of output of one firm improves the efficiency of others
B. a large firm acquires monopoly advantage
C. the staff of the firm makes a discovery which patentable.
D. prices are reduced for bulk buying of raw materials
ANSWER: A
90. Internal economies of scale may not arise due to _______________.
A. division of labour.
B. vertical integration.
C. bulk purchases.
D. high cost.
ANSWER: D
91. Opportunity cost is a term which describes ________________.
A. a bargain price for a factor of production
B. costs related to an optimum level of production.
C. variable costs.
D. cost of one product in terms of production of others forgone.
ANSWER: D
92. Total cost is ____________.
A. the overall cost associated with a given level of output.
B. equal to marginal cost times the quantity of output.
C. determined by adding marginal cost and average cost.
D. fixed cost plus marginal cost.
ANSWER: A
93. Marginal cost curve cuts the average cost curve _____________.
A. at the left of its lowest point.
B. at its lowest point.
C. at the right of its lowest point.
D. at its highest point.
ANSWER: B
94. Marginal cost means ______________.
A. subtraction to the total cost.
B. addition to the total cost.
C. multiplication to the total cost.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: B
95. An LAC curve is not known as _________________.
A. envelope curve.
B. planning curve.
C. operating curve.
D. plant curve.
ANSWER: D
96. The marginal product equals the average product when the latter is _______________.
A.
B.
C. equals to its maximum value
D. equals to its minimum value.
ANSWER: D
97. In case of oligopoly, number of firms is -------------
A. Large
B. Infinite
C. One
D. Few
ANSWER: D
98. What are homogenous products?
A. Undifferentiated products
B. Differentiated products
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A
99. A distinguishing characteristic of monopolistic competition is ----------------
A. Large number of firms
B. Low entry barriers
C. Product standardisation
D. Product differentiation
ANSWER: D
100. In perfect competition, the marginal revenue curve ----------------------
A. And the demand curve facing the firm are identical
B. Is always above the demand curve facing the firm
C. Is always below the demand curve facing the firm
D. Intersects the demand curve when marginal revenue is minimized.
ANSWER: A
101. If firms can neither enter nor leave an industry, the relevant time period is the --------------
A. Short run
B. Intermediate run
C. Long run
D. Immediate run
ANSWER: A
102. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?
A. Firms are price setters.
B. There are few sellers in the market.
C. Firms can exit and enter the market freely.
D. All of the above are correct.
ANSWER: C
103. In the long run, a profit-maximizing firm will choose to exit a market when _________________.
A. fixed costs exceed sunk costs
B. average fixed cost is rising
C. revenue from production is less than total costs
D. marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue at the current level of production
ANSWER: C
104. When firms have an incentive to exit a competitive market, their exit will _____________________.
A. drive down market prices.
B. drive down profits of existing firms in the market.
C. decrease the quantity of goods supplied in the market.
D. All of the above are correct.
ANSWER: D
105. In a perfectly competitive market, the process of entry or exit ends when ____________________.
A. firms are operating with excess capacity.
B. firms are making zero economic profit.
C. firms experience decreasing marginal revenue.
D. price is equal to marginal cost.
ANSWER: C
106. Imperfect competition was introduced by -------------
A. Marshall
B. Chamberlin
C. Keynes
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
107. In case of Monopoly, a firm in long run can have ----------------
A. Loss
B. Profit
C. Super normal profit
D. All of above
ANSWER: D
108. In Perfect Competition equilibrium is attained When ---------
A. AR = AC
B. TR = TC
C. MR = MC
D. Q = P
ANSWER: C
109. Price leadership may not arise due to _________________.
A. cost advantage.
B. substantial market share.
C. initiative in developing a product.
D. make poor quality of the product.
ANSWER: D
110. Concentration of monopoly is implemented under ----------------
A. FERA
B. MRTP
C. FEMA
D. None
ANSWER: B
111. Which method is better in measuring the national income?
A. Expenditure census method
B. Social accounting method
C. Opportunity method
D. Incremental method
ANSWER: A
112. In perfectly inelastic, demand curve will be -----------------
A. Horizontal Straight line
B. Vertical line
C. Rectangular hyperbola
D. None
ANSWER: B
113. In relatively inelastic, demand curve will be ----------------
A. Horizontal Straight line
B. Vertical line
C. Steeper
D. Flatter
ANSWER: C
114. Deductive method explains things from------------------
A. General to particular
B. Particular to General
C. Both
D. None
ANSWER: A
115. The primary objective for discriminating monopolist is --------------
A. Loss minimization
B. Profit maximisation
C. To cover production cost
D. All the above.
ANSWER: B
116. A monopolistic competitive firm sells ----------------- products
A. Differentated
B. Homogenous
C. All of the above
D. None
ANSWER: A
117. Under perfect competition firms do not engage in price-war because _________________.
A. firms work in co-operation with one another under the same
B. number of firms under the same is very large.
C. the demand for the product of a firm under the same is perfectly elastic
D. all the above-mentioned conditions are responsible.
ANSWER: B
118. The equilibrium of a firm occurs when _______________.
A. P = MC.
B. MC = MR.
C. P = MR.
D. AC = MC.
ANSWER: B
119. In a perfectly competitive market, the firm will be ________________.
A. a price maker.
B. attempting to maximise profits.
C. producing a product which will be different from its competitors.
D. a price taker.
ANSWER: D
120. In an Oligopolistic market, there are ________________.
A. a large number of sellers and few buyers
B. few sellers and few buyers.
C. few sellers and a large number of buyers
D. only one seller.
ANSWER: C
121. Which one is not collusive oligopoly ___________________.
A. price leadership.
B. market-sharing cartel.
C. price discrimination
D. price fixing cartel.
ANSWER: B
122. Equilibrium implies a state of ________________.
A. rest.
B. inactivity.
C. absence of motion.
D. movement.
ANSWER: A
123. Uncertainty refers to ______________.
A. insurable risks.
B. uninsurable risks
C. risks due to fires and accidents
D. no risks.
ANSWER: B
124. Willingness to pay, _______________.
A. is the minimum valuation of each buyer of a good.
B. is the price that each buyer can afford given his current income.
C. is the maximum valuation of each buyer of a good.
D. must be greater than the price of a good.
ANSWER: B
125. A marginal buyer is the one _______________________.
A. who, if the price is increased a little is the first to go out of the market.
B. who, if the price is decreased a little is the first to enter the market
C. who is indifferent about buying and not buying
D. both a and c.
ANSWER: A
126. A market is said to be efficient ___________________.
A. if quantity demanded and the quantity supplied are the same.
B. if both consumer surplus and the producer surplus are maximized.
C. if the sum of the producer surplus and the consumer surplus is maximized
D. both a and c.
ANSWER: D
127. Under perfect competition, rivalry is _____________________.
A. impersonal.
B. very personal and direct, advertising being important.
C. nonexistent since the firms cooperate.
D. control output.
ANSWER: B
128. Monopolies arise as a consequence of ______________.
A. patents .
B. control over the supply of a basic input.
C. franchise .
D. capture the market.
ANSWER: B
129. A monopolist will never produce at a point where ____________________.
A. demand is price-inelastic.
B. demand is price-elastic.
C. marginal cost is positive.
D. marginal cost is increasing.
ANSWER: D
130. Which of the following best defines price discrimination?
A. Charging Different Prices On The Basis Of Race.
B. Charging Different Prices For Goods With Different Costs Of Production
C. Charging Different Prices Based On Cost-Of-Service Differences.
D. Selling A Certain Product Of Given Quality And Cost Per Unit At Different Prices To Different
Buyers.
ANSWER: D
131. Dynamic Theory of profit given by ----------------
A. J.B.Clark
B. Hawley
C. Schumpeter
D. J.S.Mill
ANSWER: A
132. A recession is-----------------
A. A period during which aggregate output declines
B. A period of decling unemployment
C. A period of very rapidly declining prices
D. A period of declining prices
ANSWER: A
133. -------- phase takes twice in a trade cycle
A. Depression
B. Recession
C. Recovery
D. Prosperity
ANSWER: D
134. Business cycle also known as ________________.
A. trade cycle.
B. contraction.
C. expansion.
D. upper turning point.
ANSWER: A
135. The main aim of monetary policy is _________________________.
A. to regulate cost and credit.
B. to control inflation
C. to control foreign exchange
D. all the above.
ANSWER: D
136. The phases of business cycle are --------------
A. Boom and Recession
B. Depression and Recovery
C. Both
D. None
ANSWER: C
137. In the ------------ phase , demand, output, employment and income are at a high level.
A. Depression
B. Recession
C. Boom
D. Recovery
ANSWER: C
138. The taxation and Public expenditure policy is Known as ------------
A. Monetary Policy
B. Fiscal Policy
C. Trade Policy
D. Pricing policies.
ANSWER: B
139. When national income of a country is calculated in terms of constant prices, it is called as------------
A. Nominal GNP.
B. GNP at current prices.
C. GNP at constant prices.
D. GDP at constant prices
ANSWER: C
140. Inflation means -------------------
A. More money less value
B. Less money high value
C. More money more value
D. Less money less value
ANSWER: A
141. ------------------ refers to the credit control measures adopted by the central bank of a country.
A. Monetary policy
B. Fiscal policy
C. Direct controls
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
142. The instruments of monetary policy are --------------------
A. qualitative
B. quantitative
C. Qualitative and Quantitative
D. None
ANSWER: C
143. A-------------- is a quantitative expression of a plan for a defined period of time.
A. Budget
B. Open market operation
C. Both
D. None
ANSWER: A
144. --------------- is a budget where receipts are equal to expenditure.
A. Revenue Budget
B. Receipts Budget
C. Balanced Budget
D. Performance Budget
ANSWER: C
145. ---------- is a variable budget.
A. Flexible budget
B. Fixed budget
C. Both
D. None
ANSWER: A
146. In India, the central monetary authority is the ------------------
A. Federal Bank
B. State Bank
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Indian Bank
ANSWER: C
147. ----------- Income is the total income received by individuals of a country from all sources before
payment of direct taxes in one year.
A. Domestic Income
B. Private Income
C. Personal Income
D. Real Income
ANSWER: C
148. The average income of the people of a country in a particular year is called -----------
A. Private Income
B. Real Income
C. Diposable Income
D. Per capita Income
ANSWER: D
149. ---------- control is used to regulate the commercial banks
A. Qualitative
B. Quantitative
C. Public Debt
D. Fiscal Measures
ANSWER: B
150. Which is not a tool of fiscal policy?
A. Public Debt
B. Public Taxation
C. Bill market
D. Public Expenditure
ANSWER: C