Productions & Operations Mcq

Productions & Operations Management -Multiple Choice Questions.

1. ………..refers to the transformation of the state of input in to output.
a)Transportation.
b)Alteration.
c)Inspection
d)all of these
2. …………refers to preserving goods in a protected environment.
a)Alteration
b)Inspection
c) Storage
d)Bargaining
3. ……………refers to the verification of and confirmation towards the
requirements of an entity.
a)Inspection.
b)Pricing.
c)Alteration.
d)None of these.
4. …………….is the management of all activities directly related to the
production of goods and services
a) Productionmanagement
b)Finance control
c)Employee development
d)all of these
5. Which of the following statement is not true in the case of goods?
a)Tangibility.
b)Can be stored
c)Physical shape
d)Intangibility.
6. Which of the following is not an objective of operations management?
a)Customer satisfaction
b)Profitability
c)Timeliness
d)Employee punishment
7. Which of the following is not a part of scientific management principles?
a)Replacement of rule of thumb
b)Scientific selection of employees
c)Supervise each worker in detail
d)Coercion
8. All of the following are differences between manufacturing and service
operations EXCEPT
a)Quality is more easily measured in service operations.
b)Productivity is easier to measure in manufacturing operations
c)Contact with customers is more prevalent with persons working in
service operations.
d)Accumulation or decrease in inventory of finished products is more
applicable to manufacturing operations.
9. ……………is measure of the quantity of output per unit of input.
a)Productivity
b)Marketability
c)Sociability
d)None of these
10. ……………………is the sum all the observations and divided by the total
number of observations?
a)median
b) Mode
c)Mean
d)None of these
11. Lillian and Frank Gilbreth are responsible for principles of
a)Sociotechnical systems
b)Zeroinventory
c)Motion study
d)Interchangeable parts
12. ………………… is the process of randomly inspecting a sample of goods and
deciding whether to accept the entire lot based on the results
a)Statistical process control.
b)Acceptance sampling
c)(a) and (b)
d)None of these
13. ……………is a system that is used to maintain a desired level of quality in a
product or service.
a)Economic ordering quantity
b)Quality control
c)Knowledge management
d)Manpower planning
14. Operations management is applicable
a)Mostly to the service sector
b)Mostly to the manufacturing sector
c) to manufacturing and service sectors
d)To services exclusively
15. The person most responsible for popularizing interchangeable parts in
manufacturing was
a) Eli Whitney
b)Whitney Houston
c) Sergio Farmerson
d)Lillian Gilbreth
16. The Father of Scientific Management is
a)Frank Gilbreth
b) Frederick W. Taylor
c) W. Edwards Deming
d) Walther Shewhart
17. Walter Shewhart is listed among the most important people of POM
because of his contributions to
a)assembly line production
b)Measuring productivity in the service sector
c)Statistical quality control
d) Just-in-Time inventory methods
18. Henry Ford is noted for his contributions to
a)Quality control
b)Assembly line operations
c)Scientific management
d)Standardization of parts
19. Which of the following is not an objective of operation management?
a)To improve product quality
b)To reduce cost of production
c)Material cost control
d)Trading on equity
20. Hawthorne studies were related with……..
a)Scientific management
b)Human relations movement
c)Marketing management
d)None of these
21. Moving of materials from the store room to the machine and from one
machine to the next machine during the process of manufacture is
called…………………
a)VED analysis
b)ABC Analysis
c)Material handling
d)None of these
22. ………………………..is the term used to describe the set of statistical tools
used by quality professionals for the purpose of quality control
a).accounting standards
b). statistical quality control
c). population study
d). none of these
23.……………. is the art of applying tests, preferably by the aid of measuring
appliances to observe whether a given item or product is within the
specified limits of variability or not.
a)Inspection
b)Planning
c)Leading
d)None of these
24. Which of the following is TRUE about business strategies?
a)All firms within an industry will adopt the same strategy.
b)Well defined missions make strategic development much easier.
c)Strategies are formulated independently of SWOT analysis.
d) An organization should stick with its strategy for the life of the business.
25………… is the process of selection of path, which each part of the product
will follow
a)Routing.
b)Scheduling
c)Follow-up.
d)Dispatching
26………….isthe fixation of time and date for each operation as well as it
determines the sequence of operations to be followed.
a)Dispatching
b)Scheduling.
c)Routing.
d)all of these.
27. ……………. is the process of verification or correction in the quality of the
product when the deviations in the quality are found to be more than
expected.
a) Policies
b)Quality control
c)Quantity measurement
d)None of these
28. Which of the following is true? The impact of strategies on the general
direction and basic character of a company is
a)Long range
b)Short ranged
c)Minimal
d)Medium range
29. Which of the following is true?
a)Corporate strategy is shaped by functional strategies
b)Corporate mission is shaped by corporate strategy
c)Functional strategies are shaped by corporate strategy
d)External conditions are shaped by corporate mission
30. The fundamental purpose of an organization’s mission statement is to
a)Define the organization’s purpose in the society
b)Define the operational structure of the organization
c)Generate good public relations for the organization
d)Define the functional areas required by the organization
31. Which of the following is not a key way in which business organizations
compete with one another?
a)Production cost
b) Product duplication
c) Flexibility
d)Quality
32. …………………….. involves determination of the progress of work, removing
bottlenecks in the flow of work and ensuring that the productive operations
are taking place in accordance with the plans
a)Follow up
b)Time management
c)Time study
d)Time booking
33…………… is the process of setting of productive activities in motion through
release of orders and instructions, in accordance with previously planned
timings.
a)Time study
b)Follow up
c)Dispatching
d)None of these
34. ………………. is a time-table of operations specifying the time and date
when each operation is to be started and completed.
a)Time study
b)Schedule
c)Loading
d)None of these
35. ………………. Involves the fixation of path through which work will flow for
manufacturing of goods.
a)Scheduling
b)Routing
c)Time study
d)None of these
36. ………. is the process of reporting daily progress of work in each shop in a
prescribed proforma and to investigate the causes of deviations from the
planned performance and to take necessary actions
a)Follow up
b)Motion study
c)Time study
d)all of these
37. Which of the following is an objective of quality control?
a)To produce qualitative items
b) To reduce companies cost through reduction of losses due to defects.
c) To produce optimal quality at reduced price.
d)all of these
38……………….. is that aspect of operation management function, which is
concerned with the acquisition, control, and use of materials needed and flow
of goods and services connected with the production process.
a)Materials management
b) Division of labour
c) Mass production
d) Craft production
39. If inputs decrease while output remains constant, what will happen to
productivity?
a.) It will increase
b) It will decrease
c) It will remain the same
d) It is impossible to tell
40…………….is the art and science of ensuring that all which occurs is in
accordance with the rules established and the instructions issued in the case
of operations.
a)Operational attack
b)operational control
c)Operational summary
d)None of these
41……………………… is concerned with deciding in advance what is to be
produced, when to be produced, where to be produced and how to be produced
a)Operational planning
b)Operational control.
c)(a) and (b).
d)None of these
42. The differences between the actual demand for a period and the demand
forecast for that period is called:
a)Forecast error
b)Weighted arithmetic mean
c) Decision process.
d) Mean square error
43. All of the following decisions fall within the scope of operations
management EXCEPT for
a) Financial analysis
b) Design of products and processes
c) Location of facilities
d)Quality management
44. ………………can be defined as the measurements that detect the onset of a
degradation mechanism, thereby allowing causal stressors to be eliminated or
controlled prior to any significant deterioration in the component physical
state
a)Break down maintenance
b)Predictive maintenance
c)Past maintenance
d)None of these
45. In the case of ………………..type of maintenance,no actions or efforts are
taken to maintain the equipment as the designer originally intended to ensure
design life is reached.
a)Break down maintenance
b)Preventive maintenance
c)(a) and (b)
d)None of these.
46. ………………is defined as the combination of tasks that are required to
keep a machine or part of a machine in the desirable condition.
a)Substitution
b)Maintenance
c )reduction
d)Induction
47. …………. involves systematically recording, analysing and synthesizing the
times required to perform a motion.
a)Method study
b)Motion study
c)Time study
d) all of these
48. …………….refers to the manufacturing of large volume of a single or a very
few varieties of products with a standard set of processes
a)Continuous production
b)Intermittent production
c)Project production
d)None of these
49. ………………. is the process of predicting and defining the long-term and
the short-term capacity needs of an organisation and determining how those
needs will be satisfied.
a)Capacity planning
b)Capacity control
c)Staff fixation
d)instrumentalisation
50………………is a measure the actual level of output for a process or activity
over a period of time.
a)Actual capacity
b)Design capacity
c)Maximum capacity
d)None of these
51. Production facilities are arranged as per the sequence of production
operations from the first operations to the finished product. This method is
called…………..
a)Process production
b)Job production
c)Both of these
d)None of these
52. Frederick Winslow Taylor is called;
a)Father of operations research
b)Father of marketing management
c)Father of financial management
d)Father of scientific management
53. In the case of…………………. the products are produced as per the
specifications of the customers within prefixed time and cost.
a)Mass production
b)Job production
c)Both of these
d)None of these
54………………..is the system in whichitems are processed in lots and a new lot
is undertaken for production only when the production on all items of a lot is
complete.
a)Job production
b)Batch production
c)Mass production
d)None of these
55. …………is the capacity that specifies a theoretical upper limit above the
usual rate of routine operations.
a)Maximum capacity
b)Effective capacity
c)Actual capacity
d)None of these.
56. ……………………………is the highest reasonable output rate which can be
achieved with the current product specifications, product mix, work force,
plant and equipment.
a)Publicity
b)Capacity
c)(a) and (b)
d)None of these
57. In ………………, machines and other supporting services are located
according to the processing sequence of the product
a)Project lay out
b)Product lay out
c)Combination lay out
d)None of these
58. The lay out in which production operation is performed in a fixed position
is called………….
a)Project lay out
b)Product lay out
c)(a) and(b)
d)None of these
59………………. decision is the systematic process of determining a geographic
site for a firm’s operations.
a)Plant location
b)Plant layout
c)Product lay out
d ) none of these
60. The layout in which all the equipment’sperforming similar tasks are
grouped together is called…………………..
a.)product lay out
b)Process lay out
c)Combination lay out
d)None of these
61. …………….. is the configuration of departments, work centres and
equipment in the conversion process.
a)Plant lay out
b)Plant locations
c)(a) and (b)
d)None of these.
62. Which of the following affect the choice of plant location decision?
a) Proximity to markets
b) Supply of materials
c) (a) and (b)
d)none of these
63. The founder of the scientific management movement was:
a) Frank Gilbreth
b) Walter Shewhart
c) Frederick W.Taylor
d) Ford Harris
64. The Hawthorne Studies stimulated the development of:
a)The scientific management movement
b)The human relations movement
c)The socio-technical movement
d)The lean production movement.
65. Walter Shewhart developed:
a). the economic order quantity model
b)The human factors engineering field
c)Linear programming models
d)Statistical quality control techniques
66. The moving assembly line was developed by:
a). Elton Mayo
b) Frederick W. Taylor
c) Clark Gable
d ) Henry Ford
67……………is used to monitor characteristics that can be measured and have
a continuum of values such as height, weight, volume etc.
a) Control chart of attributes
b) Control chart for variables
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
68……………..is used to monitor characteristics that have discrete values and
can be counted
a) Control chart for variables.
b)Control chart for attributes
c)(a) and (b)
d) None of these
69. Which of the following is not a control chart for variables?
a)X Chart
b)R Chart
c) P Chart
d) None of these
70. Which of the following is not a control chart for attributes?
a)P chart
b)C chart
c)X chart
d) None of these
71.ISO 9000 is a………………….
a) International standard
b)National standard
c) Local standard
d)None of these
72. In management literature TQM stands for
a) Total quality management
b) Total quantity management
c)Total quantity maintenance
d) None of these
73………………..is a group of workers from the same area who usually meet to
discuss their problems, investigate, recommend solutions and to corrective
actions
a) Quality problems
b) Quality circle
c)Quantify value
d) None of these
74.Which of the following is not an objective of quality circle?
a)To improve quality
b)To improve productivity
c)Trading on equity
d)None of these
75. Which of the following is not a principles’ of TQM?
a)Customer focus
b)Continuous improvement
c)Team approach
d)Black marketing
76………………is the systematic recording and critical examination of existing
and the proposed way of doing work as a means of developing effective
methods.
a)Method study
b)Time study
c)Time booking
d)None of these
77. The costs of all activities incurred to prevent poor quality in products and
services.
a)Prevention cost
b)Appraisal cost
c)Failure cost
d)None of the above
78. This cost is the cost associated with measuring evaluating, or auditing
products or services to assure conformance to quality standards and
performance requirements
a)Prevention cost
b)Appraisal cost
c)Failure cost
d)None of the above
79. This cost is the costs resulting from products or services not conforming to
requirements or user needs.
a)Prevention cost
b ) appraisal cost
c)Failure cost
d)None of the above
80.…………… is a graphical tool to analyse and time the small, physical
actions of workers and machine in performing a routine, repetitive, workermachine
task so that idle time can be identified
a) Activity chart
b) Metrics
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
81)…………is the level of output volume for which total cost equals total
revenues
a) Profit
b)Breakeven point
c) sales
d) all of these
82)……………. is a process of representing each item by a number, the digit of
which indicates the group, the sub-group, the type and the dimension of the
item.
a) Codification
b) Classification
c) Duplication
d) None of these
83)…………………….is a Manufacturing systems utilizing computer software
programs that control the actual machine on the shop floor.
a) complex manufacturing
b) Computer aided manufacturing
c) ( a )and (b)
d) None of these
84)……………is the Japanese concept of continuous improvement in all things.
a)Kaizen
b)Marketing myopia
c) (a) and (b)
d)None of these
85)………………..is the process of creating and using mathematical
representations of management problems and organizations to predict
outcomes of proposed courses of action
a) Mathematical modelling
b) Physical modelling
c) Service queries
d).none of these
86)…………………………is the degree to which the design specifications for a
product or service are appropriate to its function and use, and the degree to
which a product or service conforms to its design specifications
a) Quantity
b) Quality
c) Price
d) Cost
87)…………………is a process used to determine the maintenance requirements
of any physical asset in its operating context?
a)Reliability Centered Maintenance
b) Preventive cost
c) Unavoidable cost
d) None of these
88)…………………………..is the application or techniques designed to establish
the time for a qualified worker to carry out a specified job at a defined level or
performance
a) Work measurement
b) Work delay
c) Work atmosphere
d) None of these
89)………………………… deals with decision-making related to production
processes so that the resulting goods or services are produced according to
specifications, in the amount and by the schedule demanded and out of
minimum cost.
a) Production management
b) Marketing management
c) Financemanagement
d) Capital structure
90)………….is the part of an organization that produces the organization’s
physical goods and services.
a) Operating system
b)Marketing system
c) Financial system
d) all of these
91. Which of the following records quantity of material only
a) Bin card
b) Stores ledger
c) Bill of materials
d) None of these
92. Which of the following is used for issuing materials to different production
departments
a)Material requisition
b) Purchase requisition
c) Purchase order
d) None of these
93. Continuous stock taking is a part of
a)Annual stock taking
b) Perpetual inventory
c)ABC analysis
d) None of these
94. Stores department issues materials to the production department on the
basis of
a) Goodsreceived note
b) Purchase requisition
c) Stores requisition
d) Material transfer note
95. Recording of time spent by a worker on different job is called
a)Time keeping
b)Time booking
c)Job card keeping
d) Job order costing
96. The difference between the actual cost and standard cost is called
a)Profit b)Loss c)Sales d)Variance
97. Qualitycircle is a group of
a)Operatives
b) Supervisors
c) Management trainees
d) Top management
98. Safety stock is related to
a) Inventory control
b) Quality control
c) Employeecontrol
d)Strategic control
99. ..............is undertaken to find out the one best way of doing the thing
a) Job Analysis
b) Merit rating
c) Job enrichment
d)None
100. The book “Creative Experience was written by ....................
a) Henry Fayol
b) F.W. Taylor
c) Mary parker Follet
d) None of these
101. The concept of Job enrichment is a contribution by........
a) Frederick Herzberg
b) F.W.Taylor
c) C.K. Prahlad
d) Peter F. Drucker
102…………… is the process of comparing actual performance with the
standard and taking corrective Action.
a) Controlling
(b) Management
c) Planning
d)Co-ordination
103…………………aims at visualizing and identifying deviation before they
actually occur.
a) Predictive control
b) Concurrent control
c) Operational Control
d)All of these
104.In ---------type of organization, workers receive instructions from various
specialists.
a) Line
b) Functional
c) Informal
d) None
105.……………………..is an organized creative approach which has its
objective, the efficient identification of unnecessary cost—cost which provides
neither quality nor use nor life nor appearance nor customer features.
a) Money chain
b) Value analysis
c) Supply chain
d) None of these
106.………………..are those materials and equipment’s which have no
immediate use but have accumulated due to faulty planning, forecasting and
purchasing.
a) Surplus items
b) Deficit items
c) (a) and (b)
d)None of these
107…………………………………. is a recording technique for micro motionstudy.
a)Simultaneous Motion Cycle chart
b) Simultaneous Master Cycle Chart
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
108……………….is a priority rule that gives top priority to the waiting job
whose operation time at a work center is shortest.
a) Material shortage
b)Shortest-processing-time rule
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
109…………………….is the process of testing the feasibility of master
production schedules in terms of capacity.
a)Rough-cut capacity planning
b) Manpower planning
c)Financial planning
d) all of these
110.………………….involves theactivities relating to procuring materials and
supplies consumed during production
a) Selling
b) Pricing
c) Purchasing
d) Distributing
111.The risk or probability of incorrectly concluding that the conversion
process is out of control.
a) Type 1 error
b) Type 2 errors
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
112.Operation process chart is also called as…………………………..
a) Online chart
b) Outline process chart
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
113. It is a chart where activities of more than subject (worker or equipment)
are each recorded on a common time scale to show their inter-relationship.
a) Single activity chart
b)Multiple activity charts
c) Charting
d) None of these
114)……….…is an assigning job to work centres without considering the work
centre’s capacity
a)Infinite loading
b) Finite loading
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
115………………………is the analysis and comparisons of items to group them
into families with similar characteristics
a) Mass technology
b) Group Technology
c) Independent technology
d) None of these
116……………………is one that is capable of producing a variety of products (or
parts) with virtually no time lost for changeovers form one product to the next.
a)A flexible automated system
b) A fixed automated system
c) (a) and(b)
d) None of these
117)Fixed position layout is also called as…………………. of layout
a)Project type
b) Product type
c) (a) and(b)
d) None of these
118)is an information management system that connects all departments and
disciplines within a company making them an integrated unit.
a)Enterprise asset management
b)Entrepreneurship development
c) Manpower planning
d) None of these
119)………………………is a Computer software programs that allow a designer
to carry out geometric transformations rapidly.
a)Tally
b)Computer-aided design
c) (a) and(b)
d) None of these
120……………..is the arrangement of a facility so that equipment used to make
similar parts or families of parts is grouped together.
a)) Cellular layout
b) Product lay out
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
121……………is a graphical and algebraic representation of the relationships
among volume of output, cost, and revenues.
a) Break mechanism
b)Break-Even Analysis
c) Fixed analysis
d) None of these
122……………...is a technology concerned with the application of mechanical,
electronic, and computer based systems to operate and control production
a) Automation
b) Manpower
c) Motivation
d) Supervision
123.Specialization of labour in manufacturing is associated with
a)Henry fayol
b)Eli Whitney & others
c)Charles Babbage
d)Frederick W.Taylor
124.Interchangeable parts, cost accounting is associated with
a) Adam Smith
b) Eli Whitney & others
c) Charles Babbage
d) Frederick W.Taylor
125.Division of labour by skill; assignment of jobs by Skill; basics of time
study are contributed by
a) Adam Smith
b) Eli Whitney & others
c) Charles Babbage
d) Frederick W.Taylor
126.Scientific management, time study and work study are associated with
a) Adam Smith
b) Eli Whitney & others
c) Charles Babbage
d) Frederick W.Taylor
127.Motion of study of jobs in production management is contributed by
a)Frank B. Gilbreth
b)Henry L. Gantt
c)F.W. Harris
d)Elton Mayo
128.Scheduling techniques for employees, machines Jobs in manufacturing
are associated with
a) Frank B. Gilbreth
b) Henry L. Gantt
c) F.W. Harris
d) Elton Mayo
129.Economic lot sizes for inventory control is developed by
a) Frank B. Gilbreth
b) Henry L. Gantt
c) F.W. Harris
d) Elton Mayo
130.Human relations; the Hawthorne studies is developed by
a) Frank B. Gilbreth
b) Henry L. Gantt
c) F.W. Harris
d) Elton Mayo
131.Statistical inference applied to product quality: quality control charts are
contributed by
a)W.A. Shewart
b)H.F.Dodge&H.G.Roming
c)P.M.Blacker& others
d)John Mauchlly and J.P.Eckert
132.Inspection sampling plans is developed by
a) W.A. Shewart
b) H.F.Dodge&H.G.Roming
c) P.M.Blacker& others
d) John Mauchlly and J.P.Eckert
133.Operations research applications in world war II is contributed by
a) W.A. Shewart
b) H.F.Dodge&H.G.Roming
c) P.M.Blacker& others
d) John Mauchlly and J.P.Eckert
134.Digital Computer is associated with
a) W.A. Shewart
b) H.F.Dodge&H.G.Roming
c) P.M.Blacker& others
d) John Mauchlly and J.P.Eckert
135. Which of the following is not an input in production system
a)Men b)Material c)Money d)Competition
136. Which of the following is a part of production system?
a) Input
b) Output
c) Transformation process
d)all of these
137. Operations management is part of
a) Management science
b) Natural science
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
138. Resources are in the form of…………
a) Human b) Material c) Capital d) all of these
139. Which one of the following is not a part of production planning and
control?
a)Follow-up
b) Financial leverage
c)Routing
d)Scheduling
140. Which one of the following is not an objective of materials management?
a) To minimise material cost.
b)To purchase, receive, transport and store materials efficiently.
c) To reduce material costs through simplification, standardisation
d) To fix cash dividend
141. Which one of the following is an objective of maintenance management?
a) To reduce breakdown of machineries
b) To keep the machines and other facilities in a good condition.
c) To keep the plant in good working condition
d)all of these
142. Operation management department has interaction with
a) Finance department
b) Marketing department
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
143. Which of the following factors affect the choice of manufacturing process?
a) Product characteristics
b)Requirements of customers
c) Availability of capital
d) all of these
144. Which of the following is a production system?
a) Continuous System
b) Intermittent System
c) Project systems
d) all of these
145. Which of the following is a characteristic of intermittent production
system?
a) The flow of production is intermittent.
b) The volume of production is generally small.
c)A wide variety of products are produced.
d) all of these
146. Which of the following is incorrect in the case of job production?
a) More variety of products is manufactured as per customer’s
requirements.
b) Volume of production is large.
c) Highly skilled employees are required who can take up each job as a
challenge.
d) Detailed planning is essential for sequencing the requirements of each
product.
147. Which of the following is an advantage of job production?
a) It tries to satisfy the unique requirements of customers.
b)Employees will become more skilled,
c) Full potential of employees can be utilised.
d)all of these
148. Which of the following is a limitation of job production system?
a) Higher cost due to frequent set up changes.
b) Higher level of inventory at all levels and it results in higher inventory
cost.
c) Production planning is complicated.
d)all of these
149. Which of the following is a part of product life cycle
a) Introduction phase
b) Growth phase
c) Saturation phase
d) all of these
150)…………….is the process of careful step by step of dismantling of existing
product in order to understand its unique underlying concepts
a) Reverse engineering
b) Civil engineering
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
151……………refers to the development of the concept or idea of a product in
terms of specifications which are required for transforming the idea in to
product
a) Product design
b) Product development
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
152………………….refers to the process of creating new products or modifying
the existing ones within a predetermined time frame and cost price
a) Product design
b) Product development
c) Market development
d) None of these
153. Which of the following technique is employed for measuring work
a) Time study
b) Work sampling
c) Predetermined motion time studies
d)all of these
154…………………is the process of determining which job to start first and in
what order other jobs should be processed on the machine or in work centre
a) Job sequencing
b) Priority rules
c) Batch production
d)None of these
155. Which of the following factors affect capacity planning?
a) Type of product
b) Type of process
c) Skill level of workers
d) all of these
156. Which of the following is an objective of scheduling?
a)meet due dates
b) Minimise lead time
c) Minimise setup time and set up cost
d)all of these
157……………….is a time table for performing activities utilizing resources or
allocating activities
a) Scheduling
b) Engineering
c) Reporting
d) Communication
158……………………..starts from some data in the future and schedules the
required operations in reverse sequence
a)Scheduling
b)Backward scheduling
c)Forward scheduling
d)all of these
159.In this sampling plan, the inspection results of two sample sizes are used
to decide whether to accept or reject the complete lot.
a)Single sampling plan
b)Double sampling plan
c) Questionnaire
d)Census investigation
160. Which of the following is a part of cost of quality?
a)Prevention cost
b)Appraisal cost
c)Failure cost
d)all of these
161. Which of the following is an objective of quality assurance?
a) To improve quality
b) To reduce cost
c) to increase productivity
d)all of these
162. Which of the following is material handling equipment?
a)Hand truck
b)Pulley blocks
c)Conveyors
d)all of these
163. Which of the following is a way of codification?
a)Numerical code
b)Mnemonic code
c)alpha-numeric code
d)all of these
164.The process of buying large quantities of items when its price is low so
that tentative profits can be obtained by selling them at higher prices is
called……………..
a)Speculative purchasing
b)Group purchasing
c)Tender purchasing
d)None of these
165. Which of the following is a function of purchasing department?
a) Receive purchase requisition
b) Supplier selection
c) Order placement
d) all of these
166……………………….is the quantity that should be carried by the company
so that production is not affected before the next deliver arrives.
a)Minimum stock level
b) Maximum stock level
c) Re order level
d) all of these
167.VED Analysis is related with
a) Materials
b) Spare parts
c) Labour
d) Overheads
168. Which of the following cost is associated with inventories?
a) Carrying cost
b) Ordering cost
c) Over stocking cost
d) all of these
169. Which of the following factor affects the choice of the plant location
selection decision?
a)Capital requirement.
b) Government policy
c)Climate conditions
d)all of these
170.Locating the plant nearer to the market is preferred if:
a) The products are subject to spoilage.
b)After sales services are promptly required very often.
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
171.Which of the following is theobjective of plant layout
a) Streamline the flow of materials through the plant.
b) Facilitate the manufacturing process.
c) Minimise materials handling cost.
d) all of these
172.Industrial buildings may be grouped under
a)Single-storey buildings,
b) Multi-storey buildings
c) (a) and (b)
d) None of these
173. Which of the following is not an advantage of single story building?
a) There is a greater flexibility in layout.
b)Expansion is easily ensured by the removal of walls.
c) low cost of transportation and material handling charges
d)More land is required for building construction
174. Which of the following is not a limitation of multi-story building?
a) Materials handling becomes very complicated.
b) A lot of floor space is wasted on elevators, stairways and fire escapes.
c) Natural lighting is poor
d) Less land is required
175. Which of the following is not a quality of good plant layout?
a) To reduce material handling cost
b) To provide enough production facility
c) To reduce labour efficiency
d) To provide ease of supervision
176.Which of the following is not anobjective of good plant layout?
a) To improve productivity
b) To provide safety to employees
c)Toincrease the number of accidents
d)to provide easy supervision
177. Which of the following is not an objective of MRP?
a) Reduction in inventory cost
b) Meeting delivery schedule
c) Improve the performance of production
d)To decrease production efficiency
178.Which of the following is not an Objective of material handling?
a) To reduce material handling cost
b) To increase production life cycle
c) Better control of the flow of material
d) To ensure safety in the movement of goods
179. Which of the following is not aRule for material handling?
a) Make handling distances as short as possible
b) Use right method and proper material handling
c)Promote wasteful material handling methods
d) Use mechanical equipment’s wherever it is useful
180.Which of the following is a Rule for material handling?
a) Make handling distances as short as possible
b) Use right method and proper material handling
c) Eliminate wasteful material handling methods
d) all of these
181.Which of the following is the objective of motion study?
a) To eliminate all non-productive and ineffective motions.
b) To develop more effective and productive patterns of movements
c) (a) and (b)
d) None
182. Which of the following is not atechnique of work measurement
a)Time study
b)Amalgamation
c) Work sampling
d). Predetermined motion and time study
183. Which of the following is a ProductionPlanning?
a) Factory Planning,
b) Process Planning
c) Operation Planning
d) all of these
184.In ……………………. the operations are located and the sequence of these
operations in the production is determined
a) Factory Planning,
b) Process Planning
c) Operation Planning
d) None of these
185.………………..is concerned with planning the details of the methods
required to perform each operation
a) Factory Planning,
b) Process Planning
c) Operation Planning
d) None of these
186.………… is the art and science of ensuring that all which occurs is in
accordance with the rules established and the instructions issued
a) Operational plan
b) Operational policy
c) Operational mission
d) Operational control
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Operations Management
187. Dispatch provides official authorization for
a)Movement of materials to different work stations,
b) Movement of tools and fixtures necessary for each operation,
c)beginning of work on each operation,
d) all of these
188. Which of the following is not an objective of quality circle?
a) To improve quality
b) To improve productivity
c)Employee retrenchment
d). none of these
189. Which of the following is not a principles’ of TQM?
a)Customer focus
b) Continuous improvement
c)Team approach
d) Producer focus
190. Which one of the following is not an objective of materials management?
a) To maximise material cost.
b) To purchase, receive, transport and store materials efficiently.
c) To reduce material costs through simplification, standardisation
d) To minimise material cost
191. Which one of the following is not an objective of maintenance
management?
a) To reduce breakdown of machineries
b) To keep the machines and other facilities in a bad condition.
c) To keep the plant in good working condition
d) all of these
192. Which of the following is not a characteristic of intermittent production
system?
a) The flow of production is intermittent.
b) The volume of production is generally small.
c) A single product is manufactured in bulk.
d) None of these
193. Which of the following is an input in manufacturing system?
a)capital
b)Material
c) Human resource
d)all of these
194. Which of the following is not a part of production system?
a) Input
b) Output
c) Transformation process
d) Politics
195.Which of the following is not a part of product life cyclestage?
a)Introduction phase
b)Competition phase
c) Maturity and saturation phase
d) None of these
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Operations Management
196. Which of the following is not an objective of quality assurance?
a) To reduce the quality
b) To reduce cost
c) To increase productivity
d) all of these
197. Which of the following is not a function of purchasing department?
a) Receive purchase requisition
b) Supplier selection
c) Order placement
d) Employee selection
198. Which of the following is not the objective of plant layout?
a) Streamline the flow of materials through the plant.
b) Facilitate the manufacturing process.
c) Enhance materials handling cost.
d) None of these
199. Which of the following is not an objective of operation management?
a) To reduce product quality
b)To reduce cost of production
c)Material cost control
d) None of these
200.Which of the following is not an objective of quality control?
a) To produce qualitative items
b) To reduce companies cost through reduction of losses due to defects.
c) Toenhance quality variation among same product category.
d)None of these

ANSWER KEY
1) b 2)c 3)a 4)a 5)d 6)d 7)d
8)a 9)a 10)c 11)c 12)b 13)b 14)c
15)a 16)b 17)c 18)b 19)d 20)b 21)c
22)b 23)a 24)b 25)a 26)b 27)b 28)a
29)c 30)a 31)b 32)a 33)c 34)b 35)b
36)a 37)d 38)a 39)a 40)b 41)a 42)a
43)a 44)b 45)a 46)b 47)c 48)a 49)a
50)a 51)a 52)d 53)b 54)b 55)a 56)b
57)b 58)a 59)a 60)b 61)a 62)c 63)c
64)b 65)d 66)d 67)b 68)b 69)c 70)c
71)a 72)a 73)b 74)c 75)d 76)a 77)a
78)b 79)c 80)a 81)b 82)a 83)b 84)a
85)a 86)b 87)a 88)a 89)a 90)a 91)a
92)a 93)b 94)c 95)b 96)d 97)a 98)a
99)a 100)c 101) a 102)a 103)a 104)b 105)b
106)a 107)a 108)b 109)a 110)c 111)a 112)b
113)b 114)a 115)b 116)a 117)a 118)a 119)b
120)a 121)b 122)a 123)a 124)b 125)c 126)a
127)a 128)b 129)c 130)d 131)a 132)b 133)c
134)d 135)d 136)d 137)a 138)d 139)b 140)d
141)d 142)c 143)d 144)d 145)d 146)b 147)d
148)d 149)d 150)a 151)a 152)b 153)d 154)a
155)d 156)d 157)a 158)b 159)b 160)d 161)d
162)d 163)d 164)a 165)d 166)a 167)b 168)d
169)d 170)c 171)d 172)c 173)d 174)d 175)c
176)c 177)d 178)b 179)c 180)d 181)c 182)b
183)d 184)b 185)c 186)d 187)d 188)c 189)d
190)a 191)b 192)c 193)d 194)d 195)b 196)a
197)d 198)c 199)a 200)c

Some more MCQ's of  Productions & Operations Management

1. Variation in the measurement of items produced under any system is ___________.
A. inevitable.
B. evitable
C. non evitable
D. static.
ANSWER: B
2. The variation due to ________factors is tolerable.
A. chance.
B. likelihood
C. probable.
D. contingent.
ANSWER: B
3. Statistical quality control takes care of the variations due to _________ causes
A. discrete.
B. normal.
C. assignable.
D. abnormal
ANSWER: C
4. Through statistical quality control one finds whether the process is under _________ or not
A. non-control.
B. regulation.
C. control.
D. restriction
ANSWER: A
5. Whether the variability in the manufactured items is within tolerance limits or not can be ascertained
through _________.
A. Pie-chart
B. Histogram.
C. Stimulation.
D. Control charts
ANSWER: B
6. A control chart contains ____ lines
A. two.
B. three.
C. four.
D. five.
ANSWER: D
7. In control charts we establish ________ limits
A. zero sigma
B. one sigma .
C. two sigma .
D. three sigma.
ANSWER: D
8. Control limits utilize the constant factors given by
A. Joseph Juran
B. Shewhart.
C. David-Ricardo
D. Deming.
ANSWER: A
9. In case of small samples, range and _____vary concurrently in the same direction
A. mean.
B. median.
C. mode.
D. standard deviation
ANSWER: C
10. X bar charts discover assignable causes _____ samples.
A. between.
B. within.
C. among.
D. inside.
ANSWER: A
11. R- charts uncover assignable causes _______ samples.
A. among.
B. within .
C. in.
D. between.
ANSWER: D
12. If x - bar chart reveals that the process is under control there is no need of preparing______.
A. bar chart.
B. pie chart
C. r-chart.
D. σ chart.
ANSWER: A
13. R charts are economical than______.
A. Ordinary chart.
B. bar chart.
C. pie chart.
D. σ chart.
ANSWER: A
14. Cntrol charts helps to _____ in the production process.
A. check the deviation in quality .
B. verify the quantity
C. verify quantity and quality
D. verify the damages
ANSWER: A
15. A peculiar pattern of points within the control limits of quality control charts is indicated
A. non-assignable cause
B. assignable causes
C. normal causes.
D. abnormal causes
ANSWER: A
16. In case of fraction defective, the variable under consideration is ________.
A. non- autonomous
B. autonomous.
C. dichotomous.
D. monotonous.
ANSWER: D
17. The variance of the fraction defectives is obtained by the yariance of________ distribution
A. Discrete.
B. Normal .
C. Poisson.
D. Binomial.
ANSWER: A
18. If better is the quality of the product _______ is the sample size required
A. larger .
B. smaller.
C. medium.
D. minute.
ANSWER: C
19. Control charts for number of defects are prepared when occurrence per item is ________as
compared to the number of defective items
A. small
B. large.
C. minute
D. medium.
ANSWER: B
20. Number of defects follows _______distribution. a. Normal.
A. Normal.
B. Binomial
C. Poisson.
D. Kurtosis.
ANSWER: B
21. Sampling inspection results into ______ in the process of inspection than total inspection
A. greater efficiency
B. profits.
C. gains.
D. better results.
ANSWER: A
22. Sampling inspection enables one to compare to ______.
A. control process
B. manufacturing process.
C. re-engineering process.
D. distribution process
ANSWER: B
23. The control limits delimited by the consumer are known as _____ limits.
A. normal.
B. brand.
C. specification.
D. standard.
ANSWER: B
24. Cent percent inspection is a must in case where single defective item is _____.
A. real.
B. normal.
C. nominal.
D. fatal.
ANSWER: D
25. No inspection is called for when items are of _______.
A. high quality
B. high quantity
C. low quantity.
D. low quality
ANSWER: D
26. Sampling inspection protects the producer from _______.
A. theft.
B. losses.
C. forgery
D. risk.
ANSWER: A
27. The decision about the lot under sampling inspection is of _____ t
A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. zero.
ANSWER: D
28. Sampling inspection reduces the risk of the ______.
A. manufacturer.
B. retailer.
C. distributor.
D. purchaser
ANSWER: D
29. Consumer risk is akin to _______ error
A. type 2.
B. type 3.
C. type4.
D. type5.
ANSWER: A
30. If a defect stops the function of an item it is known as _______ defect.
A. minute.
B. major.
C. minor.
D. simple
ANSWER: C
31. Producers risk is referred as ________ error.
A. probable.
B. standard.
C. type 1.
D. type2.
ANSWER: B
32. A defect in an item reducing its efficiency is classified as_______ defect
A. normal.
B. abnormal.
C. major.
D. minor.
ANSWER: B
33. The average fraction defective is also termed as _______ average
A. producers process.
B. manufacturing process.
C. distribution process
D. input- output process.
ANSWER: C
34. Sequential analysis was developed in the year______.
A. 1946.
B. 1947.
C. 1948.
D. 1949.
ANSWER: C
35. The decision based on inspection by variables is_______reliable than by attributes
A. less
B. less than.
C. more.
D. more than.
ANSWER: B
36. Drawing units from a lot or process irrespective of their quality is known as ______.
A. random sampling
B. judgment sampling
C. snowball sampling
D. blind sampling
ANSWER: D
37. The expected sample size required to arrive at a decision about the lot is called the ________. a.
average sample number.
A. average sample number
B. average sample size
C. average sample lot.
D. average sample unit.
ANSWER: D
38. The average sample number depends on the ______ present in the lot.
A. proportion of units
B. proportion of defectives
C. proportion of size
D. proportion of samples
ANSWER: D
39. A sample inspection plan is considered satisfactory if it is not _______.
A. adequate.
B. measurable.
C. complicated.
D. simple.
ANSWER: A
40. Sequential sampling plan requires ______ amount of inspection
A. maximum.
B. reasonable
C. moderate
D. minimum.
ANSWER: A
41. The theory of sequential sampling plan was originally given by _________.
A. AWald.
B. Adam Smith
C. David Ricardo
D. Deming and Crosby
ANSWER: D
42. Sampling inspection plans were pioneered by_______.
A. Juran and Deming.
B. Dodge and Roming
C. Adam smith and Walter
D. Deming and Crosby
ANSWER: B
43. In a sequential decision problem, the total spare is divided into_______regions
A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
ANSWER: C
44. Sampling inspection plans are meant for_______.
A. automatic control
B. process control.
C. system control
D. product control
ANSWER: D
45. The control charts help to achieve __
A. process control
B. automatic control.
C. digital control.
D. system control.
ANSWER: A
46. Control on the quality of product by critical examination at strategic points is called________.
A. product control.
B. process control
C. production control.
D. input-output control.
ANSWER: D
47. In sequential sampling, the sampling inspection is reduced by__________ percent as compared to
single sampling plan.
A. 20-35.
B. 35-50.
C. 50-65.
D. 65-80.
ANSWER: B
48. In sequential sampling plan the sample size is _________.
A. random size.
B. random design.
C. random variable.
D. random number.
ANSWER: C
49. In double sampling plan, there is a ________ percent saving is sampling inspection as compared to
single sampling plan.
A. 1-9.
B. 10-17.
C. 18-24.
D. 25-33.
ANSWER: A
50. To ensure that the proportion of defective items in the manufactured product is not beyond certain
limits is called ______.
A. process control.
B. system control.
C. product control
D. systematic control
ANSWER: C
51. The control limits delimited by the consumer are called _________.
A. modified control limits
B. natural control limits
C. specified control limits.
D. artificial control limits
ANSWER: A
52. Sampling inspection procedure by variables as compared to by attributes is _______.
A. more prevalent
B. nor practiced.
C. less prevalent.
D. practiced.
ANSWER: D
53. The sampling inspection procedure adopted in statistical quality control is of ______ types
A. two.
B. three.
C. four.
D. five.
ANSWER: B
54. The decision about the lot under sampling inspection procedures can be of ______ types
A. one.
B. two
C. three.
D. four
ANSWER: B
55. The expected sample size required to arrive at a decision about the lot is called_______.
A. random variable
B. average sample number
C. random design
D. average sample size
ANSWER: B
56. A control chart based on known parameter values is_________.
A. more advantageous than the one based on estimated values
B. complicated than that of control chart based on estimated values.
C. estimated less reliable than the control chart based on values.
D. less reliable than the control chart based on calculated values
ANSWER: C
57. A sequential sampling plan is ________.
A. an infinite process
B. the process requiring much more sampling units than a fixed sized sample
C. a process in which sampling terminates with probability one
D. a finite process
ANSWER: C
58. The decision in a sequential sampling scheme is taken ______.
A. after inspecting the sample as a whole
B. after selection and inspection of items one by one
C. before inspecting the sample as a whole.
D. before selection and inspection of items one by one
ANSWER: C
59. In a double sampling plan a decision about the acceptance or rejection of a lot______.
A. will never reach
B. . will always reach
C. will sometimes reach.
D. will reach.
ANSWER: A
60. In a decision problem under sequential sampling scheme the total decision space is divided into
_______.
A. one region namely acceptance.
B. equally shaped regions consisting of alternating acceptance and rejection regions
C. three regions namely the regions of acceptance , rejection and continuance
D. two regions namely the region of rejection and continuance.
ANSWER: A
61. _________ is considered as the essence of management
A. Co ordination
B. Planning.
C. Staffing.
D. Directing.
ANSWER: D
62. ________ is a vital aspect of the managerial process
A. Controlling.
B. Communication.
C. Performance-appraisal.
D. Merit rating.
ANSWER: D
63. ________ is the process by which information is transmitted between individuals and or an
organization so that an understanding response results
A. Selection.
B. Recruitment.
C. Communication.
D. Quality-control
ANSWER: D
64. ______ consists of converting the idea, or message into form of words, symbols , pictures, actions
for transmission.
A. Listening
B. Coding.
C. De-coding.
D. Encoding.
ANSWER: C
65. ______ simply means getting things done through others
A. Management.
B. Financial management
C. Operations management.
D. International management.
ANSWER: C
66. _______ means assignment of meaning by a person to the stimuli he receives from his environment.
A. Stimuli.
B. Perception
C. Communication
D. Organizational development
ANSWER: D
67. ______ means putting thoughts into communication symbols in communication process
A. Transmission.
B. Responding.
C. Encoding.
D. De-coding.
ANSWER: C
68. Conveyance of communication symbols to the receiver is called________.
A. encoding.
B. de-coding.
C. transcription.
D. transmission.
ANSWER: B
69. Translating the idea into action by the receiver in the communication process is called ________.
A. responding.
B. retrieving
C. receiving.
D. decoding.
ANSWER: B
70. _________ is the written message or response from the receiver to the transmitter
A. Action
B. Feedback.
C. Reaction
D. Stimuli.
ANSWER: C
71. ________ communication is transmitted by the mail , facts , telegraph, telex, news papers,
magazines, notice boards etc.
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical.
C. Written.
D. Visual.
ANSWER: C
72. ________ communication is also known as grape vine .
A. Formal.
B. Lateral.
C. Visual
D. Informal.
ANSWER: C
73. Facial expression and gestures , posters , slides fall under _______ communication
A. visual.
B. face to face
C. horizontal.
D. vertical
ANSWER: A
74. Select the one which is not the principle of communication
A. Principles of clarity
B. Principles of truth
C. Principles of correctness
D. Principles of courtesy
ANSWER: D
75. ________ has pointed out that the grape vine is more a product of the situation than of the
A. Prof. Amanatullan
B. Prof. Siris kumar Bhattacharya
C. Prof. Keith Davis.
D. Prof. S. Sachdeva
ANSWER: A
76. .__________ communication is also known as diagonal communication which signifies that
communication between different departments
A. Lateral.
B. Horizontal.
C. Cross wire
D. Cross sectional.
ANSWER: A
77. .________ is a process of influence on a group towards the accomplishment of goals
A. Group cohesiveness
B. Fellow ship.
C. Group dynamics.
D. Leadership.
ANSWER: B
78. Autocratic leadership is also known as _______.
A. Authoritarian leadership
B. Democratic leadership
C. Laissez faire leadershi
D. Free rein leadership
ANSWER: B
79. Autocratic style is conceived by______ as hard approach to management under theory x. a. id-
Ricardo.
A. id- Ricardo
B. Mc-Gregor.
C. Adam Smith.
D. De-Morgan
ANSWER: C
80. _______style of leadership is based upon positive assumption about human beings
A. Autocratic.
B. Laissez faire.
C. Democratic.
D. Situationalistic.
ANSWER: C
81. Trait theory of leadership was pronounced by ________ attempts to classify Physical, mental and
personality are associated with leadership success
A. Kelly
B. F.E Fiedler
C. Robert j house
D. Mouton.
ANSWER: D
82. ________ theory is based on the premise that effective leadership is the result of effective role
behavior.
A. Situational.
B. Behavioral.
C. Managerial grid.
D. Path goal leadership
ANSWER: A
83. Contingency theory of leadership was developed by ______.
A. FW Taylor.
B. Henry Fayol.
C. F E Feidler.
D. Robert Simon.
ANSWER: C
84. Contingency theory of leadership was developed in the year_______.
A. 1964.
B. 1965.
C. 1966.
D. 1967
ANSWER: B
85. Path goal leadership theory was proposed by _______.
A. Robert J House.
B. Robert Simon.
C. Henry Fayo.l
D. F E Feidler.
ANSWER: C
86. _______ theory attempts to predict leadership effectiveness in different situation
A. Trait theory
B. Path goal leadership theory.
C. Situational theory.
D. Autocratic theory
ANSWER: B
87. Path goal leadership theory was developed in the year________.
A. 1969.
B. 1970.
C. 1971.
D. 1972.
ANSWER: B
88. _______ theory was developed by Blake and Moutonas a popular application of both tasks and
person orientation.
A. Clerical grid
B. Economical grid
C. Behavioral grid.
D. Managerial grid.
ANSWER: B
89. Managerial grid theory of leadership was developed in the year________.
A. 1978.
B. 1979.
C. 1980.
D. 1981.
ANSWER: C
90. ________ is relatively a permanent change in behavior as a result of experience
A. Co-ordination
B. Learning.
C. Conflict.
D. Stress.
ANSWER: D
91. ________ a set of important understandings that members of a community share in common.
A. Managerial grid.
B. Group.
C. Culture.
D. Group dynamics.
ANSWER: D
92. The concept of organizational climate was formalized in the year____________.
A. 1937.
B. 1938.
C. 1939.
D. 1940.
ANSWER: C
93. The primary purpose of ________ is to make the best use of the personnel element in any corporate
enterprise.
A. Personnel management.
B. Human resource management.
C. Personal management.
D. Organisational management.
ANSWER: D
94. __________ is the process of increasing the skills and knowledge of personnel for the purpose of
improving individual and organizational performance
A. Selection.
B. Training.
C. Orientation.
D. Recruitment.
ANSWER: D
95. _______ is also known as merit rating.
A. Critical analyses.
B. Critical park.
C. Performance appraisal.
D. Task force analyses.
ANSWER: C
96. _________ is a systematic evaluation of the personal qualities and performance of each employee
by his supervisor.
A. Credit rating.
B. Risk analyses.
C. Appraisal.
D. Merit rating
ANSWER: B
97. Select the odd one which is not the management function
A. Co-ordination.
B. Planning.
C. Directing.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: B
98. Select the odd one which is not the operative function of management
A. Procurement.
B. Organization.
C. Development.
D. Integration.
ANSWER: A
99. _______ is always forward looking in management
A. Controlling.
B. Co- operation.
C. Planning.
D. Cohesiveness.
ANSWER: A
100. _______ is backward looking in management
A. Staffing.
B. Directing.
C. Supervision.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: B
101. Measurement and correction of performance of activities of subordinates falls under ________.
A. controlling
B. motivating.
C. morale
D. job enrichment.
ANSWER: C
102. __________ is considered as the heart of the management process
A. Job rotation
B. Direction
C. Job analysis.
D. Supervision.
ANSWER: C
103. _________ is managerial function consisting of all those activities which are concerned directly
with the guiding influencing and supervising the subordinates in their jobs.
A. Development.
B. Procurement.
C. Directing.
D. Compensation.
ANSWER: B
104. _________ is used in the sense of an enterprise or a business unit
A. Planning.
B. Controlling.
C. Co-ordination.
D. Organization.
ANSWER: B
105. _________ may be considered as consisting of division of work among people and co-ordination of
their activities towards some objectives.
A. Organization.
B. Management.
C. Development.
D. Education.
ANSWER: A
106. ________ is a fundamental function of personnel management
A. Co-ordination.
B. Planning.
C. Staffing.
D. Directing.
ANSWER: A
107. _______ involves deciding in advance what is to be done, where, how, and by whom it is to be
done
A. Co ordination.
B. Controlling.
C. Planning.
D. Directing.
ANSWER: C
108. __________ is concerned with sustaining and improving the conditions which have been
established
A. Development.
B. Compensation.
C. Integration.
D. Maintenance.
ANSWER: C
109. ___________ includes reconciling the interest of employees with the organizational objectives.
A. Integration.
B. Development.
C. Leadership.
D. Morale.
ANSWER: B
110. ____________ is concerned with the wages and salaries administration to remunerate the
employees for their service
A. Procurement.
B. Compensation.
C. Co-ordination.
D. Maintenance.
ANSWER: B
111. ___________ implies the increase of skills through training that is necessary for proper job
performance
A. Training.
B. Procurement.
C. Development.
D. Supervision.
ANSWER: A
112. ___________ is concerned with the obtaining of the proper kind and the number of personnel
necessary to accomplish necessary organizational goals.
A. Staffing.
B. Directing.
C. Organization.
D. Procurement.
ANSWER: A
113. ________ refers to the alteration of structural relationships and role of the people in the
organization.
A. Organizational change.
B. Organizational culture
C. Organizational climate.
D. Organizational conflict.
ANSWER: D
114. __________ is a practical approach in launching and diffusing change in an organization.
A. Organizational conflict.
B. Organizational development.
C. Organizational culture.
D. Organizational climate.
ANSWER: D
115. ___________ means creation of utilities and covers all the activities of procurement, allocation
and utilization of resources such as labour, energy which have want satisfying power.
A. Operation.
B. System.
C. Production.
D. Distribution.
ANSWER: B
116. __________ is a process of planning and regulating the operation of that part of an enterprise
which is responsible for actual transformation of materials into finished products
A. Manufacturing management.
B. Operation management.
C. Systems management.
D. Production management.
ANSWER: B
117. ___________ function develops a physical relationship between inputs and outputs
A. Production.
B. System.
C. e-manufacturing.
D. assembly line.
ANSWER: C
118. ___________ may be defined as the ration between output and input
A. Production.
B. Productivity.
C. Batch production.
D. Job production.
ANSWER: C
119. ___________ is the ratio of available goods and services to the potential resources of the
community or the country.
A. Purchasing power.
B. Simulation.
C. Productivity.
D. Demography.
ANSWER: B
120. ___________ is the third step in the production planning and control
A. Routing.
B. Scheduling.
C. Expediting.
D. Dispatching.
ANSWER: C
121. __________ in the production planning and control is checking of work and taking corrective steps
to ensure that each piece of work is completed at the right time
A. Expediting.
B. Dispatching.
C. Routing.
D. Scheduling.
ANSWER: B
122. Production planning starts with ____________.
A. scheduling.
B. routing.
C. dispatching.
D. expediting.
ANSWER: C
123. ____________ involves implementation of production plans by coordinating different activities.
A. Production planning.
B. Production schedule.
C. Production control.
D. Productivity.
ANSWER: B
124. A production system uses __________ to perform inputs into some desired output
A. operations system.
B. operations materials.
C. operations services.
D. operations resources.
ANSWER: C
125. The services that simply make the external customers life easier is called _________.
A. value added services.
B. value added products.
C. service products.
D. luxury products.
ANSWER: D
126. products that are made correctly and customized to consumer needs are called __________
A. core products.
B. essential products.
C. durable products.
D. core services.
ANSWER: D
127. The ability to rapidly increase or decrease production levels or shift production capacity quickly
from one product or service to another is called____________.
A. capacity uncertainty.
B. capacity alteration.
C. capacity flexibility.
D. capacity certainty.
ANSWER: C
128. Automation version of the generic manufacturing process, where in the three manufacturing
functions are replaced by the automated technologies is called _______.
A. automated materials handling system.
B. flexible manufacturing system.
C. computer integrated manufacturing system.
D. production planning system.
ANSWER: D
129. Whole time directors are also known as ______________.
A. inside directors.
B. part-time directors.
C. outside directors.
D. full-time directors.
ANSWER: C
130. ____________ executive system may lead to power concentration in organization
A. Double chief.
B. Single chief.
C. Main chief.
D. Triple chief.
ANSWER: D
131. . In very large organization _________ officers also appointed to support chief executive and chief
operating officers.
A. Executive planning officer.
B. Strategic planning officer.
C. Financial planning officer.
D. Corporate planning officer.
ANSWER: A
132. ____________ directors are those who not devote full time to the affairs of the company.
A. Sub-directors.
B. Main director.
C. Full-time director.
D. Part-time director.
ANSWER: B
133. _____________ level strategy is made in case the firm is a multi product firm.
A. Corporate.
B. Trade.
C. Business.
D. Function.
ANSWER: B
134. Corporate level strategy requires high level of _________ capabilities .
A. co-operation.
B. systematic.
C. normal.
D. adaptability.
ANSWER: A
135. ._____________ level strategy comes below functional level strategy.
A. Situational.
B. Corporate.
C. Operational.
D. Functional.
ANSWER: A
136. ______________ is a choice of certain course of action which is derived by judgment.
A. Evaluation.
B. Choice.
C. Selection.
D. Decision.
ANSWER: A
137. Lower level managers are also known as ___________.
A. supervisory level managers.
B. corporate level managers.
C. functional level managers.
D. middle level managers.
ANSWER: D
138. Strategic management is mainly concerned with __________.
A. functional level management.
B. top level management.
C. middle level management.
D. er level management.
ANSWER: C
139. ______________ are calculated predictions of future based on extrapolation
A. Futures.
B. Events.
C. Forecasts.
D. Incidents.
ANSWER: D
140. ___________ is a process that relates an organization with its environment through some suitable
course of action involving substantives as well as procedural dimension.
A. Operational management.
B. Functional management.
C. Supervisory management.
D. Strategic management.
ANSWER: C
141. ___________ approach focuses on status quo
A. Holistic approach.
B. Tactical approach.
C. Systems approach.
D. Contingency approach.
ANSWER: C
142. Business firm emphasis on attracting new ______________.
A. customers.
B. people.
C. target groups.
D. suppliers.
ANSWER: C
143. ______________ firms have comparatively small interest groups
A. Company.
B. Business firm.
C. Organization.
D. Trading.
ANSWER: B
144. All the elements of strategic management are _________ in nature
A. chronologically.
B. equal.
C. sequential.
D. orderly.
ANSWER: C
145. The __________ approach considers only the immediate future.
A. situationalistic approach.
B. holistic approach.
C. systems approach.
D. tactical approach.
ANSWER: B
146. The functions of ___________ are not quite related to strategic management
A. board of directors.
B. chief executives.
C. personnel manager.
D. managing director.
ANSWER: B
147. Corporate planning staff functions in __________ capacity
A. managerial.
B. staff.
C. personal.
D. official.
ANSWER: C
148. ___________ formulates long term plans for the organization
A. Staff members.
B. Business executives.
C. Chief executives.
D. Board members.
ANSWER: C
149. The legal functions that board of directors of any company are described in _______.
A. Partnership act.
B. Companies act.
C. MRTP act.
D. Indian companies act.
ANSWER: B
150. As per _________ model strategic formulations are made from general to specific .
A. Holistic model.
B. System model.
C. Baumols model.
D. Tactical model.
ANSWER: C
151. _____________ attempts to provide an understanding about the objectives that a firm is set out to
achieve.
A. Strategic planning.
B. Strategic intent.
C. Strategic management.
D. Strategic decisions.
ANSWER: C
152. A mission should be ________ both in terms of intension and words
A. simple.
B. brief.
C. clear.
D. vague.
ANSWER: B
153. ___________ states the image which the organization wishes to project
A. Objectives.
B. Plan.
C. Vision.
D. Mission.
ANSWER: C
154. Good _________ fosters long term thinking
A. vision.
B. mission
C. plan.
D. target.
ANSWER: B
155. The mission should be feasible that is; it should have only ________ targets.
A. achievable.
B. high.
C. focused.
D. low.
ANSWER: C
156. ___________ have given guidelines to provide a visionary company
A. Adams.
B. Collins.
C. Sharma
D. Patel.
ANSWER: B
157. ___ is the end results which an organization needs to achieve.
A. Target.
B. Vision.
C. Objective.
D. Mission.
ANSWER: C
158. _____________ is a statement of a business or a set of business with which the organization is
engaged presently or wishes to engage in future
A. Business goals.
B. Business process.
C. Business plan.
D. Business definition.
ANSWER: C
159. The dimensions of business definitions are ___________.
A. customer.
B. plan.
C. mission.
D. supplier.
ANSWER: C
160. ___________ dimensions of business definition specifies what activities are to be undertaken to
produce and deliver products/services
A. Product dimension.
B. Technology dimension.
C. Functional dimension.
D. Process dimension.
ANSWER: B
161. _____________ objectives are at the top of hierarchy of objectives
A. Functional objectives.
B. Social objectives.
C. Societal objectives.
D. Individual-level objectives.
ANSWER: B
162. _________ objectives are at the lowest level of the hierarchy.
A. Functional objectives.
B. Social objectives.
C. Societal objectives.
D. Individual-level objectives.
ANSWER: C
163. Objectives of any organization should be __________ instead of being idealistic
A. rational.
B. social.
C. economical.
D. individualistic.
ANSWER: D
164. Objectives should always start with the word __________.
A. for.
B. to.
C. by.
D. from.
ANSWER: D
165. ________ is based on the concept of total or complete perfection
A. Zero defect management.
B. No defect management.
C. Economical management.
D. Technological management.
ANSWER: D
166. ___________ is a group of products within a product class that are closely related.
A. Product innovation.
B. Product line.
C. Product modification.
D. Product development.
ANSWER: A
167. _________ is a set of all goods and services that are made available for sale.
A. Product plan.
B. Product development.
C. Product mix.
D. Product line.
ANSWER: A
168. The method in which communication is done in written form for arriving at a decision is called
__________.
A. management technique.
B. monte-carlo technique.
C. simulation.
D. delphi technique.
ANSWER: A
169. The full form of OCP is _____
A. Organizational capability profile.
B. Organizational capacity profile.
C. Organizational competitive profile .
D. Organizational composite profile.
ANSWER: D
170. ________ gives a position of superiority to any organization.
A. Competitive price.
B. Competitive advantage.
C. Competitive position.
D. Competitive dynamics.
ANSWER: D
171. There are ___________ generations of bench marking
A. three.
B. four.
C. five.
D. six.
ANSWER: A
172. Benchmarking is a tool to generate _________.
A. competitive positioning .
B. competitive brand.
C. competitive pricing.
D. competitive advantage.
ANSWER: C
173. Competitive advantage profile is also known as _________.
A. strategic advantage profile.
B. strategic business profile.
C. strategic decision profile.
D. strategic policy profile.
ANSWER: C
174. End game strategy is another name for ________ strategy
A. Profit strategy.
B. Competitive strategy.
C. Functional strategy.
D. Dimensional strategy.
ANSWER: B
175. Turn around strategy is also known as _________ strategy .
A. .functional strategy.
B. cut back strategy.
C. dimensional strategy.
D. competitive strategy.
ANSWER: B
176. ____________ may be defined as a single use plan
A. Objectives.
B. Budget.
C. Programme.
D. . Plans.
ANSWER: C
177. On the basis of _________ policies are formulated at corporate level and are communicated to
SBU heads.
A. commercial papers.
B. financial papers.
C. budget papers.
D. position papers.
ANSWER: C
178. _________ are prepared to get a background on which strategic budget can be prepared.
A. Position papers.
B. Commercial papers.
C. Financial papers.
D. Budget papers.
ANSWER: D
179. Each SBU has its own tailor made __________ as per its own capabilities and requirements.
A. policy.
B. strategy.
C. budget.
D. programme.
ANSWER: D
180. The way an individual perceives success or failure is affected by his ___________.
A. culture.
B. ethics.
C. values.
D. dynamics.
ANSWER: A
181. Values of a person are a part of his _________.
A. norms.
B. ethics.
C. groups.
D. culture.
ANSWER: A
182. Strategic _________ transforms the organization changing faces like culture values , management
practices , size and so on.
A. leadership.
B. scholarship.
C. partnership.
D. dictatorship.
ANSWER: A
183. ___________ is the activity which is of central importance of strategic leadership
A. Morale.
B. Motivation.
C. Programme.
D. Objectives.
ANSWER: D
184. There are _________ types of strategic control methods.
A. two.
B. three.
C. four.
D. five.
ANSWER: D
185. ______ is the process of taking into account the changing assumption on which a strategy is based.
A. Implementation control.
B. Alert control methods.
C. Strategic surveillance method.
D. Premise control method.
ANSWER: D
186. ________ Charts are used for planning the steps necessary to implement Quality improvement.
A. Gannt charts.
B. Histogram.
C. Matrix diagram.
D. Flow charts.
ANSWER: A
187. .____________________ is used to select the most popular or important items from a list.
A. Multivoting.
B. Mystery Shopping.
C. Objective ranking.
D. Nominal group technique.
ANSWER: C
188. .________ is used for monitoring a process to detect changes or when a change has been made to
process input to find out whether the process output changes
A. Statistical process control.
B. Spider Web Diagram.
C. Sampling.
D. Process analysis.
ANSWER: B
189. .____________ is used to identify when a value is changing over time.
A. Gantt chart.
B. U chart.
C. Bar chart.
D. x - MR chart.
ANSWER: B
190. __________is used to delight the customer through the manufacturing and servicing process by
implementing the quality goals of the organization.
A. QDF.
B. Quality policy deployment.
C. Dotplots.
D. Pyramiding.
ANSWER: C
191. _________ are used to collect data when the location of a defect or problem is important.
A. Brainstorming.
B. C-chart.
C. Concentration diagrams.
D. Fault tree analysis.
ANSWER: B
192. _________is used to estimate the survival period of a particular product unit under certain
conditions using a simulated experimental environment
A. ABC analysis.
B. Minute analysis.
C. VED analysis.
D. FSN analysis.
ANSWER: C
193. _________schemes are used to generate ideas for improvement.
A. Structural schemes.
B. Analytical schemes.
C. Suggestion schemes.
D. Quantitative schemes.
ANSWER: B
194. .___________is used to help a process which aims at making the most effective and efficient use
of existing production structures.
A. SPC.
B. Total productive maintenance.
C. Tolerance design.
D. Taguchi method.
ANSWER: C
195. .______________give a team a methodical way of examining alternatives to reach a collective
conclusion which all team members can accept
A. Analytical reasoning.
B. Quantitative analysis.
C. Non verbal reasoning.
D. Consensus reaching.
ANSWER: B
196. .______________is used to design an operation in such a way that specific errors are prevented
from causing major problems to the customer
A. Error proofing.
B. Gannt charts.
C. DPA.
D. Force analysis.
ANSWER: D
197. _____________ is a project planning technique which separates the work to be done into discrete
elements allowing the key elements that affect the overall project to be identified.
A. Forcified analysis.
B. Critical path analysis.
C. Minute analysis.
D. Fault tree analysis.
ANSWER: A
198. What does PDCA stand for?
A. Predict-Do-Check-Act.
B. Plan-Do-Compare-Act.
C. Predict-Do-Check-Analyze.
D. Plan-Do-Check-Act.
ANSWER: D
199. What does PDSA mean?
A. Plan-Do-Study-Act.
B. Predict-Do-Study-Act.
C. Plan-Do-Study-Analyze.
D. Predict-Do-Study-Analyze.
ANSWER: A
200. Select the one which is not the element of quality cost?
A. Cost of production.
B. Cost of prevention.
C. Cost of appraisal.
D. Cost of internal failures.
ANSWER: D
201. _______costs are the costs that are incurred in assessing that the products/services conform to the
requirements.
A. Out Of Pocket Cost.
B. Opportunity Cost.
C. Appraisal Cost.
D. Sunk Cost.
ANSWER: D
202. _______ is the process of influencing others towards the accomplishment of goals.
A. Enrichment.
B. Motivation.
C. Leadership.
D. Organisational behaviour.
ANSWER: C
203. The _______statement is a short declaration of what an organization
A. mission statement.
B. vision statement.
C. quality policy statement.
D. business policy statement.
ANSWER: D
204. ___________sets the long term direction of the organization in which it wants to proceed in future.
A. Ad-hoc plan.
B. Single use plan.
C. Financial plan.
D. Strategic plan.
ANSWER: C
205. Select the odd items which do not find a place in quality statements?
A. Business policy statement.
B. Vision statement.
C. Mission statement.
D. Quality policy statement.
ANSWER: D
206. Expansion of SWOT is _______.
A. Strength- weakness-opportunity-trust.
B. Stimulate-weakness-organise-trust.
C. Strength-weakness-opportunity-threat.
D. Strength-weakness-operate-transfer.
ANSWER: D
207. _________does not find a place in the Maslows hierarchy of needs
A. Physical need.
B. Psychological need.
C. Esteem need.
D. Safety need.
ANSWER: C
208. Select the one which is not the QC tools?
A. Control charts.
B. Check sheets.
C. Scatter diagrams.
D. Tree diagram.
ANSWER: C
209. Select the one which is not the management tool?
A. Pareto diagram.
B. Matrix data analysis diagram.
C. Matrix diagram.
D. Affinity diagram.
ANSWER: C
210. Six sigma principle which is a philosophical benchmark or standard of excellence proposed by
__________.
A. Genichi Taguchi.
B. Edward Deming.
C. Philip Crosby.
D. Joseph.M.Juran.
ANSWER: B
211. PDSA cycle is also known as __________.
A. QFD.
B. DemingWheel.
C. Juran Trilogy.
D. Kaizen.
ANSWER: C
212. __________do not find a place in the Jurans quality trilogy.
A. Quality improvement.
B. Quality planning.
C. Quality control.
D. Quality analysis.
ANSWER: B
213. Cause and effect diagram also known as fish bone diagram was developed by ___________in the
year 1943
A. Ishikawa.
B. Joseph Juran.
C. Walter.A.Shewart.
D. Edward Deming.
ANSWER: C
214. ____________benchmarking is also called as customer satisfaction benchmarking or customer
value profiling.
A. Performance benchmarking.
B. Product benchmarking.
C. Process benchmarking.
D. Strategic benchmarking.
ANSWER: B
215. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) also known as ________.
A. Multivariate analysis.
B. Bi-variate analysis.
C. Strategic analysis.
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D. Risk analysis.
ANSWER: C
216. Select the odd one which is not the type of FMEA?
A. System FMEA.
B. Design FMEA.
C. Theoretical FMEA.
D. Concept FMEA
ANSWER: D
217. Select the odd one which is not the stages of FMEA?
A. Screening of risk.
B. Quantifying risk.
C. Re-evaluation of risk.
D. Correcting high risk causes.
ANSWER: D
218. The international organization for standardization was established in the year _____.
A. 1947.
B. 1956.
C. 1946
D. 1959.
ANSWER: A
219. ___________organizational structures, responsibilities, procedures, process, and resources
implementing quality management
A. Quality systems.
B. Quality-control-systems.
C. Quality- assurance-systems.
D. Quality maintenance systems.
ANSWER: B
220. ________family is primarily concerned with quality management
A. ISO 9004.
B. ISO 14000.
C. ISO 9000.
D. ISO 14001.
ANSWER: B
221. ________is concerned with environmental management
A. ISO 14000.
B. ISO 14001.
C. ISO 14012.
D. ISO 14004.
ANSWER: C
222. Select the odd one which is not the required document for the ISO certificate?
A. Quality policy manual.
B. quality system procedures.
C. Records.
D. contract review.
ANSWER: B
223. ___is carried out to verify whether a quality system is effective and suitable.
A. Quality audit.
B. Quality assurance audit.
C. Quality verification.
D. Quality analysis.
ANSWER: C
224. Performance appraisal is also known as ______.
A. merit rating.
B. quality rating.
C. credit rating.
D. critical rating.
ANSWER: D
225. Select the odd one which is not the dimension of quality?
A. Response.
B. Reliability.
C. Reputation.
D. Reassurance.
ANSWER: C
226. Supplier rating system is also referred to as a _________used to obtain an overall rating of
suppliers performance.
A. score card system.
B. open ended system.
C. credit card system.
D. sub system.
ANSWER: C
227. The term muda in TQM refers to ______ classes of waste.
A. six.
B. seven.
C. eight.
D. nine.
ANSWER: C
228. Malcom Balridge national quality award is used to measure TQM efforts on an __________basis.
A. quarterly.
B. monthly.
C. annual.
D. halfyearly.
ANSWER: D
229. Select the odd one which is not the type of check sheets?
A. forced distribution check sheet.
B. process distribution check sheet.
C. defect factor check sheet.
D. defect location check sheet.
ANSWER: D
230. RPN in total quality management denotes _______.
A. risk priority number.
B. return priority number .
C. risk preference number.
D. return preference number.
ANSWER: A
231. Identify the odd one which is not the type of benchmarking in relation to objects being
benchmarked?
A. product benchmarking.
B. competitive benchmarking.
C. performance benchmarking.
D. strategic benchmarking.
ANSWER: A
232. . Identify the odd one which is not the benchmarking based on the nature of firms against which
benchmarking could be done?
A. Process benchmarking.
B. Relationship benchmarking.
C. Industrial benchmarking.
D. Internal benchmarking.
ANSWER: D
233. ________ is a tool to collect a large amount of verbal expressions and organize them in groups
according to natural relationships between individual items
A. Bar diagram.
B. Matrix diagram.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Relationship diagram.
ANSWER: D
234. ______ is sometimes referred to as quality table is the starting point in building a house of quality.
A. Matrix Diagram.
B. Pie Diagram.
C. Affinity Diagram.
D. Relationship Diagram.
ANSWER: B
235. ________ is the Japanese word which means continuous improvement over improvement. a.
Kaizen.
A. Poke yoke.
B. Poke yoke.
C. DemingWheel.
D. Pareto analysis.
ANSWER: B
236. PDSA was originally developed by _______.
A. Joseph Juran.
B. Walter .A. Shewart.
C. Edward Deming.
D. Ishikawa.
ANSWER: C
237. Select the one which is not the new tool of quality?
A. Check sheet.
B. Histogram.
C. Pie diagram.
D. Pareto diagram.
ANSWER: C
238. Cause and effect diagram resembles _______.
A. bar diagram.
B. pareto diagram.
C. pie diagram.
D. fish bone diagram.
ANSWER: B
239. ________ is also called as 80/20 rule which means 20% of problems account for 80% of the
effects.
A. Pareto analysis.
B. Stratification analysis.
C. VED analysis.
D. Chi- square test
ANSWER: C
240. ._________ also known as tally sheet is a form for systematic data gathering and registering to get
a clear view of the fact .
A. Spread sheet.
B. Work sheet.
C. Check sheet.
D. Control charts.
ANSWER: D
241. .__________ are a special type of small group activity which forms a vehicle for the development
of individuals.
A. Rich pictures.
B. Qfd.
C. Opportunity analysis.
D. Quality circle.
ANSWER: D
242. __________ is a search for industry best practices that lead to superior performance.
A. Generic benchmarking.
B. Consensus mapping.
C. Bench marking.
D. Core competence.
ANSWER: A
243. _______ helps to avoid fire fighting and waste of resources by planning for contingencies in the
completion of the project
A. Strategic planning.
B. Ad-hoc planning.
C. Contingency planning.
D. Single use plans.
ANSWER: B
244. ________ demonstrates to yourself, your customers and an independent assessment body that you
have an effective quality management system in place
A. ISO 9001.
B. ISO 9000.
C. ISO 2001.
D. ISO 9002.
ANSWER: C
245. .______ is used to deliver the raw materials or components to the production line to arrive just in
time when their needed
A. Kaizen.
B. QFD.
C. Poke Yoke.
D. JIT.
ANSWER: D
246. JIT was developed by______.
A. Ford.
B. Toyota motor company.
C. Hyundai.
D. Tata motors.
ANSWER: B